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John 14, In My Fathers House
John 14:1-6 NASBOne of the most ridiculous things I hear from pastors, teachers and other Christians, based on John 14, is that for the last 2,000 years Jesus has been in heaven building mansions. So let me get this straight, God created everything in six days, speaking it all into existence, but yet it has taken him more than 2,000 years to build some dwelling places? If this is true, he must have hired a contractor. This is as ridiculous as it sounds. As we will see later on in this article, in the Bible "My Fathers House" referred to the temple on earth. Since it always refers to the temple, the "My Fathers House" mentioned by Jesus in John 14 can't be a reference to the temple in heaven where we spend eternity. This is debunked by Revelation 21:22 which states, "And I saw no temple in the city, for its temple is the Lord God the Almighty and the Lamb." Think about what pre-trib believes. Jesus has spent the last 2,000 years up in heaven building mansions that we live in for seven years, but then we don't live in them during the millennium, because we are on earth, and then we don't live in them in eternity, because there is no temple in heaven in eternity. This seems very unrealistic. Building Mansions No part of the Trinity is building anything currently. In Hebrews 4:3 it says that God's works were completed after he rested on the seventh day of creation. In John 14:2, the verb εἰσιν is "Present Indicative," which is properly translated "are." Notice it does not say that there "will be many rooms." It says "are" because they presently exist. The best translation would be "In my Father's house currently exist many resting-places." The word the KJV translates as mansions, is the Greek word μονή (mone), which is only used twice in the New Testament. Both uses occur in John 14, and prove Jesus was not talking about buildings. The other appearance is in John 14:23. John 14:2 WeymouthIn verse two, even Darby, in his translation of the Bible, translates mone as abodes! John 14:23 NASBIt says that we (Jesus and God the Father) will come to him, and God will make their abode (mone) with them! This is the same thing Jesus said in verse two, just expanded with further details. So when we love God, does the Father come and give us a physical building, or is it speaking of the indwelling of God in us? The indwelling, making our abode with God and being one with God is scattered throughout Jesus' discourse: John 17:22-23 NASBThe Greek word μονή (mone) is a noun. It's verbal cognate is μένω (meno) which is used 14 times in a span of 37 verses in John 14-15. That is an average of over one occurrence every three verses! Do you think Jesus was trying to make a point? For example, ὁ δὲ Πατὴρ ἐν ἐμοὶ μένων (meno) (the Father dwelling in Me) John 14:10; ὅτι παρ' ὑμῖν μένει (meno) καὶ ἐν ὑμῖν ἔσται "For He (the Holy Spirit) dwells with you, and He will make his abode in you) John 14:17; Ταῦτα λελάληκα ὑμῖν παρ' ὑμῖν μένων (meno) "This I have said to you while dwelling with you" John 14:25; μείνατε (meno) ἐν ἐμοί κἀγὼ ἐν ὑμῖν "Abide in Me, and I [will dwell] in you" John 15:4. In 15:4 Jesus goes on to say that a vine cannot bear fruit unless it μένῃ (meno) ἐν τῇ ἀμπέλῳ "dwells in the vine." Jesus uses this same analogy to encourage us, and tells us, ἐν ἐμοὶ μένητε (meno) "dwell in Me." This same theme continues for the remainder of chapter fifteen. Jesus brings His discourse full circle about this future indwelling by mentioning the coming of the Holy Spirit, "the Helper." John 15:26 NASBAlso in Jesus' discourse in chapter fifteen He once again reiterates He is going to die. John 15:13 NASBChapter divisions are a nice feature which make it easy to reference specific sections of scripture. However, these divisions can sometimes distract us from the actual context of what was originally written. In Greek not only did they have no verse or chapter markings, the original manuscripts had no punctuation or even spaces between words. Sentenceswouldlooklikethis. John 14 is part of Jesus' upper room discourse during the last supper. The context starts in chapter thirteen. The discourse ends in John 18:1. John 18:1 ISVChapter thirteen ends talking about Jesus going to die. "Jesus said, ‘ Now is the Son of Man glorified'" (John 13:31). This is the immediate context of John 14. Jesus was just restating what He previously explained. John 12:23-24 NASBSince John 14 is part of Jesus' Last Supper discourse, all of what he said from chapters thirteen through eighteen must be taken into consideration as the context of John 14. So what was the Last Supper all about? Jesus was eating this meal in observance of the Passover (John 13:1). Not only was Jesus observing the Passover, he was literally in the process of fulfilling this shadow. He would be the Lamb that was slain, and true believers would pass-over from death to life. The whole of the context was Jesus explaining that He must go and die for their sins, that they must receive salvation, and in doing so, they would become the new temple of God, with the Holy Spirit, God the Father and Jesus, all dwelling inside of them. In this upper room discourse Jesus teaches that: Communion symbolizes His death "This is my body, which is given for you" (cf. Luke 22:19-20); the importance of being saved (cf. John 13:20, John 14:6, John 17:2-3, John 17:20-23); He explains that He is going to die (cf. John 13:31, John 15:13); and also explains oneness of believers and God (John 17:20-23). John 14:10-14 NASB John 14:2Here is my translation of the Greek of verse two broken down: ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ τοῦ Πατρός μου "In my Father's house" μοναὶ πολλαί εἰσιν "Currently exist many resting-places" εἰ δὲ μή "But if it was not so" εἶπον ἂν ὑμῖν "I would have told you" * ἂν is used to show emphasis. Note, Jesus highlights that this is a current reality.ὅτι "in order" πορεύομαι "I go [to die]" * I would put the "in order" here (i.e., I go to die, in order to make ready a seat [or place] for you).ἑτοιμάσαι τόπον ὑμῖν "To make ready a seat [or place] for you." In regard to πορεύομαι BDAG stated it can be used "as a euphemism, go to one's death." (Pg 692). They gave the following two examples, Luke 22:33 and Luke 22:22, "For the Son of Man goes [to die] πορεύεται as it has been determined, but woe to that man by whom he is betrayed!" If I said, "my son is having a birthday party, I have to go prepare for it." If what I said was understood how most Christians understand John 14:2, it would be assumed that I'm heading to the YMCA where the party is taking place. However, this assumption is wrong. The point being I have to prepare. What I really was saying was, I have to go to Party City, I have to go rent chairs, I have to go to a bakery, I have to go to the store to get food. In fact, my statement could be accurate even if I don't attend the party or for that matter, the statement is still true even if I never stepped foot inside the YMCA. What ever your view is on John 14, I would assume it would be conceded that without Jesus dying on the cross, it would be impossible to be saved, have eternal life, and go to heaven. Therefore, even if Jesus did return to heaven to build literal mansions, it would not be possible for us to go there unless Jesus first died on the cross for our sins, thus preparing a place for us. If this is conceded, He did in fact prepare a place by going to die, irregardless of whether His reference to "My Father's House" is in Heaven or the temple on earth made up of believers. In 14:2 it does not state where He was going to prepare. People only assume He meant he was going to heaven. After this speech Jesus died on the cross. Then He went to Hades (the place of the dead. Not to be confused with Hell.) He rose from the dead, and saw who? Mary. Where had he not yet gone at this point? The Father. In John 14:2 it said that Jesus prepared for believers a resting-place, which occurred when He went and died on the cross and paid for our sins. The point Jesus is making is figurative, His death allows us to now enter His rest. Hebrews 4:1-5 NASB Hebrews 4:10 NASBWe have now entered this rest, this is what John 14 is talking about. There is a temple in heaven but it is never once called the Fathers House. The verse is not referring to a physical building, but the concept in the New Testament that believers now make up the temple of God. The phrase "My Father's house" always refers to the temple on earth in the New Testament. All Christians collectively, currently make up the temple of God. John 2:16 NASB Luke 2:49 NASBThe fact that Christ indwells believers is clearly taught in Scripture. Galatians 2:20 NASBChrist dwells in Paul because Jesus died for his sins and prepared a place. This theme of Jesus dwelling inside believers is repeated over and over again in the New Testament. "Don't you recognize that you are people in whom Jesus Christ lives" (Cf. 2 Corinthians 13:5 GNT); "Christ lives within you" (Cf. Romans 8:10 NLT); "God...was pleased to reveal His Son in me" (Cf. Galatians 1:15-16 NASB); "so that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith" (cf. Ephesians 3:17 NASB). Also see Colossians 1:27 and 2 Corinthians 4:6. How do you get to the Fathers house? Under the New Covenant you must believe, that is the way! John 14:5-6 NASBTemple and "My Father's house" are synonymous terms. Therefore, collectively, not individually, we are the Father's house. Obviously, this is all symbolic. 1 Corinthians 3:16 NASB 1 Peter 2:5 NASB Hebrews 10:19-21 NASBWe have two interpretation options for understanding verse three. Option one is to believe Jesus left to go build mansions in heaven. But why would He have to leave to do that? He spoke everything into existence. He could have a trillion mansions built in heaven in less than a second merely by speaking them into existence from anywhere. Option Two He prepared a place for all who will be saved by dying on the cross. John 14:3Here is my translation of John 14:3: καὶ ἐὰν πορευθῶ "If I go [die]" * Which Jesus was saying will definitely happen, since πορευθῶ is Aorist Subjunctive Passive.καὶ ἑτοιμάσω τόπον ὑμῖν "and make ready (prepare) a resting-place for you" πάλιν ἔρχομαι "I will come to you again [shortly]" * ἔρχομαι is Present Indicative Middle. The present tense in Greek generally denotes a present action, but not always. Having πάλιν in the sentence, the listener would have known that he was not talking about a present action, but one that would have taken place shortly (i.e., it was in the process of happening). If Jesus meant He was coming in 2,000 years, I doubt He would have used the present tense, and probably would have used the future tense, as is the case of second coming passages that use a verb. Also see my note on the middle voice at the end of this translation.and I will receive you [at a future point] καὶ παραλήμψομαι ὑμᾶς πρὸς ἐμαυτόν "to Myself" ἵνα "in order that" ὅπου εἰμὶ ἐγὼ "where I exist" καὶ ὑμεῖς ἦτε "you may also exist [as well]." In regard to the Middle voice, Young states that the "subject intimately participates in the results of the actions." (Young, Intermediate Grammar, Pg 804) In other words, we participate by believing. Once we believe Jesus comes to us and dwells in us. John 16:16 Translation my ownThe shortly and short here are from the Greek word μικρὸν (mikros) which is where we get the word micro. Examples of use in the New Testament include; a grain of mustard seed, in that it is the smallest seed (Mark 4:31); the least in the kingdom (Luke 7:28); of children (Mark 9:42); etc... This is exactly what happened. Shortly after saying this, Jesus was betrayed by Judas, and died on the cross. The disciples no longer saw him. Then he rose from the dead and went to the Father to finish the atonement in the true temple in heaven. He then returned to earth for a short period of time (40 days). This is exactly what Jesus told His disciples. This shows that Jesus was talking about his death, burial and resurrection, and not His ascension and second coming. Hebrews 9:11-12 NASBAfter the Last Supper, He left the disciples and went where? He died on the cross and went to Hades (the place of the dead generally). He rose from the dead and saw who? Mary. Where had he not yet gone at that point? The Father. Early Sunday morning after Jesus rose from the dead, he had this conversation: John 20:17 NASBWe know from the book of Hebrews that Jesus then went to the temple in heaven and offered His blood on the altar. Hebrews 9:24-26 NASB Acts 2:31 NASBJesus was going to die and to appear in the Temple in Heaven. This is where the disciples could not go. They do follow afterward, because after the cross Jesus abides in believers in the new temple of God, just as the Holy Spirit indwells believers. He never once says that He is traveling bodily to the Fathers House. Therefore, we must conclude that John 14 is not speaking of the Rapture but the indwelling of God upon Christians when the moment they believe. HOME | ABOUT | ARTICLES: The Timing of the Rapture The Testimony and Parables of Jesus Does apostasia in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 refer to the rapture? The Church Not Found In Revelation The Resurrection 1 Thessalonians 4:13-5:11, New Doctrine or Just a Clarification? Who Escapes What in Revelation 3:10? Imminence Refuted John 14 - In My Fathers House Harpazo the Greek Word for Rapture Behold! I tell you what mystery means The Dead in Christ & Tribulation Saints Andy Woods Revelation is NOT Chronological Is the Holy Spirit the Restrainer? What I believe - Day of the Lord Timeline Understanding Zechariah 14 Blasted Hope or Blessed Hope? Understanding Greek Pronouns and Their Importance The Comfort Given by Paul The Rapture in Revelation 7, Part 1 The Rapture in Revelation 7, Part 2 | |||
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